November 13, 2009
Bad Faith, Not in Good Faith...Tomato, Tomahto
In Amirsaleh v. Board of Trade of The City of New York, Inc, Chancellor Chandler takes up the heavy burden of politely explaining the Delaware corporate law to the Supreme Court. I apologize for posting such a long quotation, but it's well worth reading. The issue here is whether in "bad faith" is the same as "not in good faith." The Supreme Court thinks the two are different. The Chancery Court begs to disagree.
According to plaintiff, all that need be shown is an absence of good faith. I must note that, in support of plaintiff’s argument, there are two known instances where the Delaware Supreme Court has suggested that there may be a difference between “bad faith” and “conduct not in good faith” in the context of the implied covenant [of good faith].
The first suggestion was made in Dunlap v. State Farm Fire and Casualty Insurance Co.when the Supreme Court stated “the case law frequently (and unfortunately) equates a lack of good faith with the presence of bad faith . . . .” But in the same case the Supreme Court explains that “[d]espite its evolution, the term ‘good faith’ has no set meaning, serving only to exclude a wide range of heterogeneous forms of bad faith.” This latter statement teaches that a party fulfills its obligation to act in “good faith” when it does not engage in any of the heterogeneous forms of “bad faith.” Put another way, “good faith” conduct can only be understood by reference to “bad faith” conduct. If no stand-alone definition of “good faith” exists, I admit my inability to understand how the phrase “a lack of good faith” has any ascertainable meaning. How can the plaintiff prove the absence of something that is undefined? In the Dunlap opinion the Supreme Court does not develop its suggestion that there might be a substantive difference between “a lack of good faith” and “bad faith.” Moreover, it does not appear to base its decision in Dunlap on that distinction (i.e., it did not find that the defendant’s actions “lacked good faith” without rising to the level of “bad faith”). Accordingly, I conclude that the Dunlap opinion did not hold that a breach of the implied covenant can be established by “a lack of good faith.”
The second suggestion was made in 25 Massachusetts Avenue Property L.L.C. v. Liberty Property Ltd. Partnership when the Supreme Court stated “[a]lthough the Vice Chancellor determined that Republic did not act in bad faith, he did not expressly address [defendant’s] liability for breach of the implied duty of good faith and fair dealing . . . . The two concepts—bad faith and conduct not in good faith are not necessarily identical. Accordingly, we must remand for the Court of Chancery to consider this claimed breach . . . .” On remand, Vice Chancellor Strine could not find a meaningful distinction between the two concepts and declined to reverse his previous ruling because he had already found that the defendant did not act in bad. Analyzing whether there was any meaningful distinction between the concepts, the Vice Chancellor observed: “Given the longstanding use of the concept of good faith to articulate the state of mind appropriate for various actors . . . and the use of the concept of bad faith to label someone whose state of mind is violative of the appropriate standard, one would think this concept of ‘neutral faith’ would have been embraced in American law before now if it had any logic or utility. I do note that in our corporate law, this court has firmly rejected the notion that the words ‘not in good faith’ means something different than ‘bad faith,’ and has done so on sensible policy, logical, and linguistic grounds.”
Based on all of the foregoing, I agree with Vice Chancellor Strine that there is no meaningful difference between “a lack of good faith” and “bad faith.” Accordingly, to prove a breach of the implied covenant plaintiff must demonstrate that defendants acted in “bad faith.”
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Posted by: kamagra | Apr 23, 2010 8:31:38 AM